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On the second example, why do you multiply $100 by 1.1 to get the increase? How is 1.1 equal to 10% :/ And how is 1.2 equal to 20%?

pyonic

by pyonic at February 05, 2010

This question is from the "PSAT" section called "Strategies for the Math Section".  This is at 4:40 in the video.

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Its not. We all agree that .1 is equal to 10%. If we multiply it by .1, we will just get her increase in her pay, but not the new pay. To get the new pay, we add 1 to the percentage, or rate. The same with 1.2.It will be like: 100(1 + .1) = 100(original pay) + 100*.1(increase) = 110(new pay = old pay + increase)

Raluchu Raluchu February 22, 2010

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hey i had this question in my mind too  1.2=120% if you do .2, which is=20%, you still have to add the base 100% to it, so im guessing she just did it at once?

yuralala yuralala November 07, 2010

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