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Why is 0! equal 1?

james711

by james711 at January 28, 2010

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b/c the factorial function is defined that way. Mathematicians decided it would be more convenient or useful, probably for the sake of not dividing by zero when doing series or sums... or because you can use the rule n! = (n-1)! * n, which wouldn't work for 1! if 0! wasn't 1.

Alison037 Alison037 January 29, 2010

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